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Prove coprimality of aks #4382
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Prove coprimality of aks #4382
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This is what chatgpt told me:
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Or counterquestion: Is the following theorem correct?
If the lemma above is correct that would successfully close the proof. I have no idea how to prove it though as I have spent few hours on it. This seems wrong though, for example p=2 A=4 R=8, we have 2 divides 4 and 8 does not divide 4 but 8/2 divides 4. So this is wrong. I need a different statement to formalise. |
If P is a prime divisor of the integer A, and if R is any integer not dividing A, there is no reason that P would be a divisor of R, so that R/P cannot be an integer. |
I think we know a bit more, for context I am trying to formalise Lemma 4.1:
I have already proven in https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/aks4d1p7d1.html I guess I could finish the proof quite easily by showing that if A does not divide B, then I'm not sure if we have that theorem in main. But that theorem would indeed close the goal, if it is correct. Maybe I just need to shift the divisor of coprmdvds2d to get the desired result? |
If I understand you correctly, you want to prove that if the integer A is not a divisor of the integer b, then the integer A/gcd(A,B) is not a divisor of B.
Let us suppose that A is a divisor of the product B.gcd(A,B), then because A is not a divisor of B, A must be a divisor of gcd(A,B). But we know that gcd(A,B) is always a divisor of A.
And because A and gcd(A,B) are boh positive integers, we must then have A = gcd(A,B). And because gcd(A,B) is always a divisor of B, we should have that A is a divisor of B, contradicting our hypothesis.
So that A/gcd(A,B) cannot be a divisor of B.
… Le 12 nov. 2024 à 18:25, metakunt ***@***.***> a écrit :
I think we know a bit more, for context I am trying to formalise Lemma 4.1:
https://www3.nd.edu/~andyp/notes/AKS.pdf
I want to formalise this statement in particular
If every prime divisor of r also divided n, then this would imply that r divided
$$n^{\lfloor \log_2(B)\rfloor}$$
contradicting our choice of r. From this, we see that r/ gcd(n, r) must also not divide A.
I have already proven
$$R \vert n^{\lfloor \log_2(B)\rfloor}$$
in https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/aks4d1p7d1.html
I guess I could finish the proof quite easily by showing that if A does not divide B, then
$$\frac{A}{gcd(A,B)} \text{ does not divide } B$$
I'm not sure if we have that theorem in main. But that theorem would indeed close the goal, if it is correct.
Maybe I just need to shift the divisor of coprmdvds2d to get the desired result?
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Not quite: Here is the statement I need to show to close the goal:
I need to show that (R/p) does not divide A. The definition of R is the smallest number that does not divide A, I have shown that it exists and that it is smaller than B. A proof of contradiction would work by decomposing R into a product qs, where q and s are coprime and both strictly smaller than R, then we have that q divides A and s divides A, and together with the coprimality of q and s we also have that qs divides A, but qs=r which by hypothesis does not divide A, which is a contradiction and this closes the goal. https://www3.nd.edu/~andyp/notes/AKS.pdf just nonchalantly mentions that R/gcd(R,n) must not divide A, but this is what I am trying to prove. Here is the context once more
And in prosa: Assume there exists an integer R that does not divide A, further more assume that there exists a prime that does divide A, then (R/p) also does not divide A. It seems tempting to directly argue that we can use https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/coprmdvds2d.html to arrive to a contradiction, but this fails for the following simple reason that we don't know that (R/p) and p are coprime. It is unclear which facts from this proof context matter, here are some examples: Now with that information equipped we can define R to be the smallest integer that does not divide A and we can also show that it exists, which is https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/aks4d1p5.html tries to prove the coprimality of R and N with the additional absurd assumption that 1 < gcd(N,R), we now need to discharge this assumption. Now we somehow need to arrive to a contradiction and here is where I am struggling hard. This statement
is a non-sequitur to me. I have looked at the main theorems regarding coprimality and dividing the gcd but nothing seems to work. It basically says take the prime decomposition of r/gcd(n,r) which includes all prime factors of r which are not part of n and show that this also does not divide A. But here it is unclear what the primitive mathematical justification for that is. Intuitively the only part where the multiplicities of n arise is the first factor of A. Thereby I am hoping that gcd(n,r) divides the second factor of A. Essentially any coprime decomposition helps. As you can see the proof context is quite polluted and I am helpless here. I assume I need the following: By the proof context I have
By ( p || R /\ -. p || N ) I can assume that
Therefore we have that the greatest common divisor of R and N is strictly between 1 and R, now all we need to do is to find one coprime factorisation of R into factors and likely use https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/coprmdvds2d.html to show that R divides A, which is a contradiction. But still I feel very close yet very far. While I have lots of ideas how to prove it every attempt as failed so far. It just feels that the theorem has a very sneaky non-triviality that I have just missed. And finding it is very hard because you don't know which of the several facts are actually relevant. |
I think this ansatz may work.
372 is true because for any prime factor q, either q=p which does not divide the lhs or q!=p which does not divide the rhs. As such both have no prime factors in common. I am dizzy... |
looks impossible without restrictions on Edit: There are restrictions on
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@metakunt Yes, there be some issue with my last proposal, sorry I misled you. |
@tirix No issues, it's a very convoluted proof indeed and neither author in the papers bothered to mention the critical step. I think I have figured out how to remedy it. Basically the core idea of 1<gcd(N,R) is that there exists a prime q that divides both N and R, but p divides R but not N, which means R has at least two prime factors. From that we know that both p^k is smaller than R, because p^k*q is less or equal to R and R/p^k is also less than R, because we divide by something greater than 1. They are obviously coprime, because p^k has only p as prime factor, but we have divided that one out in R/p^k. However sadly there is no theorem that explicitly states that in main ;( |
The proof was quite nice to formalise once I knew that there are two prime divisors of R. Can't believe that it took me that long to find it. |
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Very nice!
You really should not attribute to me the proof of aks4d1p8
, that's fully yours.
I've updated the contributor. I still kept you as proof sketch author since your work was very important and helpful to me. This proof was a chore to formalise as both authors were failing to see the core idea why that proof works and I had to sadly figure it out myself. I think I've overall spent over 20 hours just trying to get the last line to work. |
Hey @tirix I have proven all steps in your proof sketch except the following one:
I have thought about using pm2.65da to get a contradiction but it seemed so hard since the theorems in main weren't cutting it for some reason.
I feel as if I have to combine those two hypotheses
to get the result.
Idea was the following: Assume (R/p) divides A, but then together with p divides A we also get that (R/p)*p=R divides A, contradiction.
This is my current sketch